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The number 1 slot ;-). How about a discussion on the why's of HL? This is an update of a post I made last week.
Robert Rapier is right to question HL in my view. The production curve on the way up could have taken any shape because it's a economic curve, specifically GDP/(GDP/bbl). Any number of things could have changed it - WW III, bird flu, asteroid strike - you choose. The fact that geology, investment and technology allowed supply to rise to 85mbd is a completely unrelated event. People who think demand creates supply are called economists not engineers.
HL is a theory without a hypothesis. OK, oil production is never a square wave and it rises then falls, and the area under the curve will equal URR at the limit but so what!
There must be some similar process or behavior at work in order for HL to produce similar outcomes in different oil provinces if that is what it is doing. We need an explanation of what HL is measuring. Is it below ground or above ground factors or one driving the other? Here, at least is a hypothesis:
The infrastructure put in place for an oil field closely correlates with the initial estimate of URR. URR(E) determines the size of the investment and thus the rate of extraction. This correlation will tend to produce similar production histories for different oil provinces and similar HL plots.
Is that why HL works? It maybe. Think about Prudoe Bay. What inputs set the size of the pipeline that carries the oil away? It's the kind of investment decision that would attract a huge amount of analysis. Did they take the rate at which the fields could produce and the URR(E) and came up with a flow rate which sized the pipe? No one would put in a big pipe for a small field or visa versa. This stable relationship of geology driving investment size provides a [possible] explanation for the repeatability of HL plots. Colin Campbell has stated that BP's internal URR(E) for Prudoe Bay was spot on but they under reported at the start. Reserves rose as more was moved into proved as per SEC rules.
I for one would like to know what I'm being asked to believe about HL.
The hypothesis is that bell shaped production functions have a linear-like behaviour on a P/Q vs Q graph. It works for Gaussian and time differentiated Logistic functions. But for Gaussian production distributions the linear regime will overestimate the URR since linearity fails as P --> 0 as the P/Q vs Q function curves down towards the Q axis. I think that for large production regions and the world the Gaussian distribution is a better fit. So the whole debate is missing the mark. The URR will be lower than we can predict around the time of the peak. Underpredicting the URR is not the problem.
Here, at least is a hypothesis: The infrastructure put in place for an oil field closely correlates with the initial estimate of URR...
I think there's something to that. Otherwise, in the Prudhoe Bay example, the pipeline capacity (if too small) would have forced a "mesa shape" to the curve.
But suppose that too-small a pipe had been built. If later the URR was seen to be big enough, another pipe would have been proposed. The reason is that when people see an opportunity for profit, they usually pursue it.
In my view the basic assumption behind the Hubbert method is exactly that. Humans are a "weedy" species, that tend to exploit all resources they can. The method expects such growth, which is indeed driven by economics. It does not depend on a specific rate of growth of production (in the initial, exponential, stage). The same math works for any constant rate of growth. In reality the growth rate fluctuates due to non-geologic factors, but in the long run (and the method applies to decades-long periods) there is usually a roughly exponential development, which slowly and eventually becomes affected by depletion (the growth rate slows down) - the first signs of below-ground factors.
I don't believe the downslope will mirror the upslope though, because I can't think of any underlying reason for that.
Thanks for your reply, vtpeaknik. Human economics definitely have a lot to do with it. I agree with you on the downslope not mirroring the upslope. They are separate curves to me - unconstrained human/economic up followed by geology constraint on the way down.
As an aside, I think T. Boone Pickens' prediction above rings true to me. Peak oil is never late for the party. I can't tell you how many times I've heard my own government (UK) say that North Sea is declining 'faster than expected'. How many times do they have to say it before realizing their whole forecasting methodology is wrong? What is more, tax on North Sea production was increased last year. Costs are typically $25/bbl for new production. Add 50% tax and North Sea oil at $50/bbl is marginal. We don't have ANY kind of localization option here with our population density.
I've got to go now. Regards,
Alan
I like the "weedy" species analogy. The Oil Shock Model uses that to the maximum effect. It makes the assumption that extraction will be proportional to the amount available, no matter how small or how large the reservoir. I have previously called this a "greedy" analysis. The inbred greed of humans is the basic premise.
BTW, I don't buy an exponential increase. An exponential increase is often mimiced by a series of damped exponentials that get convolved together.
No more tempests in teapots.
You know, I really do agree with you here, although I have to admit that in part the purpose of this blog is to debate the minutiae of things like this....
HL is a theory without a hypothesis. OK, oil production is never a square wave and it rises then falls, and the area under the curve will equal URR at the limit but so what!
OK, let's see.. I think you have sort of answered your own question there, Alan. The hypothesis goes something like this: many natural phenomena follow a bell-shaped curve. I think there's a formal statement of this in the discipline of statistics.
So, what Hubbert was saying, is that oil production will follow this trend regardless of political / economic / etc. issues. Basically we're gonna pump it out and use it as fast as we can in the end. Some of the TOD filk will superciliously say it's a "logistic curve", but they're both just blobs on a graph, near as I can tell. It looks to me like the bell is just the first derivative of the logistic WRT time.
I was trying to explain this in a recent thread, and was duly corrected: Hubbert did not originate "Linearization"; it had been my impression that he did. Anyhoo, the linearization is a clever way of graphing the production curve so that the points (theoretically) fall along a straight line. Furthermore, as time passes and production continues, the estimate gets better (because there is more history [larger Q] in the later points on the graph).
The beauty of linearization is that it allows you to place a ruler on the graph, strike a line, and get an estimate of the URR for the stuff you're trying to predict.
But in the end, it's all just statistics and the actual URR will only be known in hindsight. Many of us have looked at the graphs put together by SS, Khebab, westexas, and others and concluded that peak is probably about now. Since it is a century-long bell curve, there may be as much as 5 - 10 years of uncertainty as to the actual location of the peak — check back in 2025 and we'll know for sure.
The hypothesis goes something like this: many natural phenomena follow a bell-shaped curve. I think there's a formal statement of this in the discipline of statistics.
It's hard to get a Normal distribution (i.e. Gaussian/Bell-shaped) from temporal causal phenomena such as oil discovery and production. Bell-shaped curves extend to infinity in both directions, and our minus infinity is not very long ago. I wish we could, but you can't really hand-wave this stuff away unless you consider the problem from first principles.
Of the things wrong with the HL/Gaussian approach, the fact that it erroneously predicts that the Romans would have used 1.5 molecules of hydrocarbon is the least of its problems :-)
1858 is the start as far as I am concerned. Up to that point, there was little active progress in oil exploration.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Petroleum#History
It kinda suprised me.
Perhaps surprising history but oil (and NG) didn't become a displacing technology until later in the 19th century. Until then whale oil was used predominately for commercial use,
Yes, and I'm surprised there has been so little discussion of this so far on this site. On poster on the HL debate left a clue: creaming curves.
It appears from the empirical evidence that the sizes of oil fields in any oil province are distributed so that there are very few large fields and increasing numbers of increasingly smaller fields. Geologists can't demonstrate from physical laws why this must be so, nor can they give you a formula to predict the distribution, but still that's what the creaming curves tell us.
Given this fact, it is easy to see that simple economics will, in part, govern the history of oil production. All other things being equal (and I know they are not), production from a large field should be more profitable than a smaller field because the costs of exploration and development of a field can be amortized over more barrels of oil. That being the case, larger fields will tend to be developed before smaller fields.
Over time, as fields deplete and production declines, that decline must be offset by the development of an ever larger number of smaller fields, which decline more quickly and must be replaced at an increasing rate if production is to be expanded or even just maintained. At some point, the capacity, financial and technical, of the oil industry to add new production will fail to keep up with the required rate of development and production will peak and go into decline.
There is a hypothesis for you all to chew on.
Would there be any signifigant predictive signalling to be gleaned from the already known drastic reduction in EROEI of pumping Petroleum now as opposed to 60 years ago? It may well still be profitable at an 8:1 EnergyROI, but just the fact that it was not too long ago 100:1 or so seems to be a clear indicator that it takes a vast amount more labor and material than it ever did then to get the same product to our tanks, even WITH these much heralded improvements in technology, EOR, etc.. just better spatulas for scraping the bottom of the barrel.
Of course this continued profitability is not about the supply's continued VIABILITY, but the consumer's addiction/dependency such that he has to pay the ferryman to get over that brook every day.
One more bit on that..
Anyone know what the petrol EROEI was gauged at during the 70's oil crisis?
and above, "Clear Indicator" should have been 'Good reminder' or something..
I always seem to post when I'm exhausted.
to paraphrase Luis de Sousa " 1-Q/Qt is the fraction of the total oil left to produce, meaning that the capacity we have to produce oil at a given moment in time is linearly dependent on the amount of oil still available to produce"
or in other words oil production is analogous to radioactive decay. there is your hypothesis
For Prudhoe Bay look at this analysis:
http://mobjectivist.blogspot.com/2006/12/alaska-peak.html
Everything was put in place, and then they turned on the switch. That's what explains the deferred sudden increase that occurred a few years after discovery.