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Stoneleigh--
As always, thank you for putting together an incredible amount of information on financial issues.
Do you have any idea on how many re-finances, including ARMs, are recourse loans? In a purchase money security interest, where you get an initial mortgage to buy a house, the loan is normally non-recourse, i.e. if the buyer can't repay, he can just walk and the lender must look to the security (the house) to recoup his losses). However, I had understood many (if not most) re-fi's were recourse, i.e. the lender can get a judgement againt the homeowner for any shortfall between the loan amount and what the lender realizes from the foreclosure sale of the asset. And judgements are often good for 10 years and can be renewed for another ten, so the judgement follows the homeowner for a long time and threatens any later-acquired assets.
When re-fi's are for 100% of equity, I would think recourse loans are the only way a lender would lend, but if the lender is simply intending to sell off the loan as quickly as possible, maybe having recourse to the borrower became less important. At any rate, if a high percentage of these re-fi's are recourse, I would think any recovery from the coming crash would be even slower.
Rick
Rick,
A very good question. Though not exactly our forté.
I put it to Tanta at Calculated Risk, who has an amazing depth of knowledge in these matters, and she was gracious enough to reply within the hour. I'll quote her entire response here, and thank her very kindly.
Hi Tanta--
Thank you for an excellent and thorough response. I agree that non-judicial foreclosure is faster and more common and that judicial foreclosure makes no sense with sub-prime borrowers since they have no assets to pursue. However, as foreclosures spread to A borrowers and as collateral values plummet, it will be interesting to see if lenders resort to judicial foreclosures more often to try to lessen their losses.
Rick
Hi Tanta--
One more thought on the issue of deficiencies between loan amount and realized sale price on non-judicial foreclosure: to the extent the foreclosing lender choses methods that do not allow it to pursue the homeowner for any deficiencies, the difference may constitute 'debt forgiveness' in the eyes of the IRS and become taxable income to the foreclosed homeowner. Granted, it is better to owe 20-25% of the debt amount than 100%, but this will effectively be new money owed the IRS which is just tacked onto the tax bill.