Robert:

I am going to disagree with you with regard to the Bush (II) timeframe as the degree of price manipulation is actually pretty evident.

First, let me state the following: my source of data is the WTI daily spot prices from the EIA averaged for a 5-day week. Each of the 5-day averages are then used to compute a 4-week average. This smooths the data somewhat (I also keep the original data plotted and it's obviously a lot noisier). I selected this 4-week averaging to help eliminate the pinging between the NYMEX front-month that could showup on the last day of the contract. The gasoline prices are the weekly composite (weighted) gasoline prices for all grades and all areas that are reported each Monday. These are paired with the previous week WTI average (both for the 1-wekk and 4 week values). These are rolling 4-week values that I've plotted.

Second, I actually started this project to demonstrate the "half-dome effect" of gasoline prices when oil prices increased sharply (sharp rise and gradual decrease).

Finally, I normalized all the data to be relative to the 1992 average prices for both oil and gasoline to demonstrate where and when the relationship breaks. I chose1992 because both oil and gasoline prices were actually quite stable during that year even though it was a Presidential Election Year.

A constructive criticism of your approach: it is not sufficient to pick a few days out of the year and then claim there is no pattern. In part, what you say makes sense and the evidence prior to 2000, indeed suggests lilttle ability to signficantly manipulate the market on a national basis. Regionally might show something different, but I haven't tried to burrow down that deep. But I'd also note the following, that oil market tightness since 2005 has probably limited the capacity to play with the prices.

Starting with the normalized data from 1990 to present we can see the decoupling

1990-Present

Zooming in a little closer since 2001 the data looks like this (I've added diesel prices to this one):

2001-Present

Only the election cycle of 2004 shows what looks to be manipulation when the price of oil and price of gasoline decoupled. The prices have mirrored since then, but the long standing trends of close coupled prices (relative to the 1992 prices) that existed from 1991 until mid-2004 have not returned.

So, let's zoom in on 2004.

Election 2004

A funny thing happened on the way to the Democratic Party and Republican Party National Conventions:

Election 2004

Notice that while thr price of oil increased beginning with the 4th of July, and in the prime of driving season, gasoline prices continued in a downward trend and until just a few weeks before the election (I'd say the timing was a little off and the price just could not be held through the election). The price of oil went from ~$39/barrel to more than $54/barrel in that period. In the meantime, gasoline prices slowly dropped from $1.96/gallon down to $1.89/gallon before rising just before the election to about $2.05/gallon. Certainly a portion of this could arise from hurricane season and specifically Hurricane Ivan, but oil was going one way and gasoline prices another well before hurricanes payed a role in the GOM.

One could also make an argument that something similar happened in the 2000 election:
Election 2000

It is more difficult to argue that price manipulation occurred in the 2002 Mid-terms (but a similar pattern appears):

Mid_Term 2002

Since the 2004 decoupling and it's persistence, the leveling of production in 2005 and the 2005 hurricane season, it's harder to demonstrate a persistent pattern for the elections in 2006, and 2008 is all over the place because of other factors sweeping the "controls" away. Here is what 2008 looks like so far:

Election 2008

I'd say that the price evidence shows that there was a very limited window for the oil companies to manipulate the gasoline prices to favor one party over the other. We might suggest that the "undervaluing" of gasoline relative to oil is just a grander scale manipulation to keep the revolutionaries from storming the gates. But the trends suggest that early in the 21st century some price manipulation for the purpose of political influnece might have been in play...

In case any one is curious about 2001 and 2003, their curves are shown below.

2001

2003

The Starship Trooper

Starship

Manipulation of prices in general have been a feature of post 2002 politics. I mark it at that time, because that was when the stock market became much less prone to price changes more than about 2.5%. Of course, this is changing today...

Anyways, Mr Rapier, my principal objection would be that the price of gasoline is dropping when the actual supply of gasoline has dropped well below normal levels. Normal economics thinking would suggest that people would be bidding up prices as something has gotten scarcer, especially in light of the recent situation in the SE US as compared to other regions of the US.

What I would like to see is gasoline prices and gasoline supply measured together in some form...

Manipulation of prices in general have been a feature of post 2002 politics. I mark it at that time, because that was when the stock market became much less prone to price changes more than about 2.5%.

Based on data for daily market volatility, 1998-2002 were quite volatile as the tech bubble inflated and burst, but 1993-1997 were quite stable. At first glance, the data seems to say little more than that stock markets are volatile around economic downturns. That doesn't seem too surprising.

my principal objection would be that the price of gasoline is dropping when the actual supply of gasoline has dropped well below normal levels.

Gasoline supplies are 21 days, same as this time last year.

Moreover, oil prices have dropped about $40/bbl - $1/gal - since their July average; given that, how could gas prices not drop?

A constructive criticism of your approach: it is not sufficient to pick a few days out of the year and then claim there is no pattern.

I didn't. I looked at the prices from May to November. That's a lot more than a few days. But the point is you have to pick a time frame and be consistent. If I only looked at election years, or moved my dates around, I could have shown any trend I wanted.

Take your approach, for instance. You aren't consistent with the data you are looking at. You aren't looking at all the data, and you are allowing your dates to move. When the price trends went in the wrong direction, you rationalized ("I'd say the timing was a little off and the price just could not be held through the election"). I can zoom in on any dates in any year and show just the opposite of the claim you are making. That's especially true if I zoom in on different dates in different years. If I look at late spring, I can usually show that gas prices are going up in an election year. That's the point. Show me an objective measurement, as opposed to "if we look at these dates in 2004, but this other date range in 2006..."

Gasoline prices and oil prices have become much more decoupled in recent years due mostly to limited refinery capacity. But there have also been times when inventories told the underlying story. If oil prices are falling, but so are gasoline inventories, those prices will decouple. You also have to keep in mind that the elections represent the low gasoline demand time of year. On the other hand, demand for oil can remain strong as people start to stock up on heating oil for the winter.

I think if you did a test in which you showed the yearly graphs for about 20 different years - but didn't show the dates - people would have a very hard time telling you which ones were election years. Just scanning your first graph, I see numerous decouplings that didn't happen in election years - especially if you zoom in and blow them up.

Let me conclude by posting a pertinent response when I posted this essay on my blog:

First, noting that gasoline prices are primarily driven by oil prices, ask the mythologist to look at oil price behavior in any country he wants. Pick a few that are presumably hostile to Republicans, like Venezuela, Iran, and Russia. If oil prices are falling in the US, they're falling in those countries too. Does it mean that Chavez, Ahmadinejad, and Putin (or OK Medvedev) are secretly pulling for McCain too? Were they rooting for Republicans in 2006? For Bush in 2004?

Second, calculate the cost of this gamble. Ask someone who believes the myth to estimate what gas price discount, and for how long, would be sufficient to buy a vote. Let's say, what, 50 cents for 5 months (or use historical figures)? At 375,000,000 gallons of gasoline per day, this scam would cost the oil industry $28 billion. I think it would be kind of tough to talk all 54 or so US refiners to play this game.

And yet, the way Saudi Arabia sets it price and quantity delivered to its customers seems more consistent with Saudi political decision making than simply maximizing dollar profits would imply.

Russia was much the same way during the Warsaw Pact days - profit was not the only consideration in where oil was piped, and what price was paid for it.

But that would imply that oil producers have a political agenda not actually coupled to monetary accounting, which would then lead to the idea that oil is not merely an economic good which the invisible hand distributes to its faithful servants.

Ask Chavez how much his various grandstanding oil shipments have cost, and he would likely answer that in a case like Cuba, the Cuban doctors have done more for his countrymen than the dollars supposedly lost by shipping oil at a 'loss.'

Mondays are always Monday unless you are looking across the International Date Line. So, when I take the weekly gasoline prices, which are are polled the same way whether there is a Federal holiday or not, they represent the first through 52nd (and on occasion 53rd) weekly values in any calendar year. Fridays are always Friday and so, with the exception of Thanksgiving Week and the various holiday weeks, we always have a 5-day average for that week from M-F. It's just as easy to pick a moving average of any suitable length between the WTI price (spot market) and the composite wholesale spot market price for gasoline.

Furthermore, the values shown are the rolling 4 week average value so the "error" of shifting days is extremely small. Besides the year-to-year preccessional effect on the movement of certain holidays that are fixed (e.g, the 4th of July) versus those that float (e.g, Memorial Day, Labor Day) are minimized AND the 4-week rolling average further reduces that effect. What is relevent is to pick a sufficiently representative period of time where short-term transients are minimized in the time-series, while teasing out the trends.

And the trend is most striking in 2004. I'm open to other suggestions as to what caused the 2004 decoupling, why it occurred right after the 4th of July and right before the Democratic Convention and then was sustained for the next 3 months before gasoline prices finally started rising (at a faster rate than oil).

Furthermore, the dollar effect is nowhere near what you suggest. If you take the four month period in 2004 (July through October) using the gasoline supplied from the EIA data you'd find that the total amount supplied was 1.13 billion barrels or 47.43 billion gallons. If the marginal cost differential was $0.10/gallon (which actually looks pretty close to the difference between the "normal wholesale price differential" and the price differential during this period of time), you'd only get a difference of 4.7 billion dollars. But with an oil aquisition cost of ~$74.5 billion and a wholesale value of the gasoline sold at around $60 billion (just by itself), not to mention the value of all the other products produced and sold, a differential cost of around $4 billion is a small price to pay to have voters happy and your favorite Congressional representatives back in power in addition to a friendly White House.

This cycle, we aren't happy in NC as we are still paying around $3.80-$3.90/gallon, when you can find gas. It does not seem to be much of a problem if you live along the some of the Interstate Highway corridors, but even in the state capital it is a problem. Yesterday and this morning, only 3 out of 12 gas stations along two routes I took had gas at some of the pumps. The rest have all their pumps shut off and the pump handles bagged. We are being told that this is likely to continue for another 1-2 weeks. Fortunately, I ride the bus.

Mondays are always Monday unless you are looking across the International Date Line.

That's not what I mean. What is the objective test we can use to compare years and use it to conclude manipulation? I think you are going to have a hard time defining that. For instance, what are the important dates for a price movement? Does it need to start a month before the election? Two months? Can the movement start in May one year and in August another year? What if the trend continues until well after the election? What do you do situations (like 2007 as Pitt pointed out) where prices decouple in a non-election year?

What I see is pretty random. One can always pick patterns out of the randomness, but only by ignoring some of it. If we do the blind test I suggested (show graphs of gas/oil prices for 20 separate years) do you think people could pick out the election years if there were no dates on the graphs (you could show the months, but not the years)? I don't think so, but if there is a pattern of manipulation this should be pretty easy to show.

I only have a couple of minutes to devote to this. Perhaps when my wife has recovered I can spend more time on this.

When I say that the gasoline price decoupled, I do not mean that it has remained uncorrelated. I mean the previous relationship can be shown to have been changed and at a very specific time.

However, if you had actually looked at the data and presented it differently, you would have discovered that the relationship between oil and gasoline prices was strongly correlated during the period of time from January 1 through June 30 with an r2 of 0.965. After July 1 through Election Day 2004, that correlation went away as oil prices climbed and gasoline prices didn't (they declined until the very end of the period in October). In that period the slope of the curve practically disappeared and the r2 fell to 0.265.

For comparison, the r2 of the period from January 1, 2001 until June 30, 2004 was 0.798 and showed a high degree of correlation (and the path up versus path back down is also quite evident). The point is that something distinctly different happened in 2004.

After the election over the next 6 months, the correlation curve shifted (to the right) but returned to a similar slope as the period from Jan 1, 2001 until Jun 30, 2004 AND returned to a highly correlated state (r2= 0.878). Now if you think you can explain why this occurred, I'm all ears. Manipulation does not have to have occurred in every election year for it to have occurred once and be perceived that it occurs every time.....

Elesewhere, you challenge me on the 2007 issue, yet you devoted a portion of your blog on the dropping of the gasoline stocks and how sharp the decline was (would you like the reference?). This is a plausible explanation for the short-term (February-May 2007) for the correlation to "fail" once again. It's more difficult to make that argument for 2004 as stocks build slightly in July 2004 before falling. We also have refineries running flat out with very high utilizations (something else that was discussed in TOD) and those refineries did not get to that state by themselves.

I can provide a much more detailed analysis, but the main point is that the ability to manipulate gasoline prices to severely lower them is probably much more limited than in the two preious Presidential elections.

As a final note: you should have noticed that the price in your quote $2.17/gallon was not possible as, until two days ago, this was less than the wholesale price of gasoline on the spot market. Last time I checked, they are still paying federal and state gasoline taxes in Illinois.

In that period the slope of the curve practically disappeared and the r2 fell to 0.265.

Well, you are going into lower gasoline demand season. That is always the case coming up on an election. But in order to make a statistically strong case, you would need to show that this anomaly didn't occur during other periods. The problem is that it has - it just depends on the time frame you look at.

Which brings me back to my original question: What is your objective test for determining manipulation? When you can define that, then we can go and apply that standard to other time periods to determine how many false positives the test gives.

you should have noticed that the price in your quote $2.17/gallon was not possible as, until two days ago, this was less than the wholesale price of gasoline on the spot market.

That quote was from 2006.

Now that my wife's health seems to be less pressing I can spend a bit more time on this.

Well, you are going into lower gasoline demand season. That is always the case coming up on an election. But in order to make a statistically strong case, you would need to show that this anomaly didn't occur during other periods. The problem is that it has - it just depends on the time frame you look at.

If that were the case, it would always or nearly always be present. Simply stated, it is not.

The objective test is really quite simple:

First, is there a positive correlation between the cost of oil and the cost of gasoline? The assumption is (and this can be tested) is that gasoline prices are largely governed by the aquisition cost of oil. Statistically, this can be shown to be true from the entire dataset. We can further test whether the relationship is statistically different when oil (and gasoline prices) are rising and when oil (and gasoline prices) are falling. And indeed, the price system exhibits hysteresis with different damping factors (which is where I came into this project years ago).

There are several other tests, we can apply. Is there a pattern to oil prices and gasoline prices over a time period of our choosing? Yes, and for simplicity sake we can choose calendar years. For example, with an average error of ~2% we can take the 15th week price of gasoline, plug into a simple equation and very accurately predict the average price of gasoline for the year. The only reason this is possible is because persistent patterns exist and there is dampening of the gasoline prices (and the autocorrelated nature of these prices) and it's not random. You could do something similar for oil prices but there is much more variability on oil prices.

Which brings us back to what other test can be applied. The simple test I applied is one where I take the first six months of data (the first 26 weeks), look to see if there is a correlation that is consistent with the hypothesis and then see if in the next 4 months the corrlation relationship holds (which runs you right up to an election). If the loss of correlation in July, August, September and October that was seen in 2004 is due, as you suggest, to going into a lower demand season, then it should always be present.

It isn't. And yet, with the six-months immediately following the 2004 election, the relationship returned to a highly correlated state even though the relationship was different (shifted) from the previous relationship. So, the question is was this merely a random transition or was is it intentional manipulation of gasoline prices? I suggest that in the case of the 2004 election and perhaps in the 2000 election you have the same type of forces at work (using the same analysis technique. But I also reiterate this point: the degree to which prices can be manipulated and for what period of time is limited by other factors.

This requires something more than a table (which means you failed to put forward a sufficiently strong and objective argument backed up with acceptable statistics) and you aren't going to be convinced by graphics without the accompanying statistics. That's fine. As I learned long ago "All experiments should be repeatable, they should fail in exactly the same way." Looking for other explanations, including statistical analysis to evaluate residual error in the models (which is what these are) to determine randomness, is what is needed.

Right now the gasoline/oil correlation is running it's "usual course" even in the face of a highly volatile market and it does not show the loss of correlation seen most strongly in 2004 and to a lesser extent in 2000.

Only the election cycle of 2004 shows what looks to be manipulation when the price of oil and price of gasoline decoupled. The prices have mirrored since then

That's not even close to true. Look at mid-to-late 2007, for example; your graph clearly shows oil prices rising sharply and gas prices falling or flat. It's the biggest decoupling in the entire graph, and it's in a non-election year.

Your data does not support the story you want to tell.

It is more difficult to argue that price manipulation occurred in the 2002 Mid-terms

Then perhaps you should fit your argument to the data, rather than trying to shoehorn the data into your argument.

There was one brief period of time where gasoline prices rose rapidly in 2007 to look as though the two would once again recouple. That period from Febraury to the end of May 2007, reversed and went back to the decoupled (but mirroring), post-2004 operating curves. If memory serves, gasoline stocks were low and declining during this period as there were a number of discussions on the minimum levels here on TOD.

Note that the same type of "price manipulation" trend is present in the 2002 data, it just is not as pronounced as in 2004. I could similarly argue that the trend is more pronounced in the two presidential elections since 1998 than it has been in the midterms. But I also look at the data going back to 1990 (where my weekly data ends and my monthly data begins because I have not been willing to go to the Federal Repository library and dig this data out of the files) and similarly conclude that there does not appear (from the way I'm handling the data against a baseline of 1992) to be manipulation prior to 2000. But, I can say that in 1973, that there was an big perceived difference between gasoline at $0.269/gallon and 0.399/gallon. Perhaps a relative value that is contemporaneous to the year in question.

Also note that this is not what I was setting out to discover when I started putting together this project more than 5 years ago AND in 2004, it was fascinating to watch the numbers evolve the way they did and a completely new pattern to emerge in near real time.

Here is what the 2007 data looks like when you remove the other years and just delalwith the calendar year (note the scale change)

2007

One argument could be that it looks, sorta, kinda, like 2004. But the sharp rise and then what looks on the other graph as a sharp fall in gasoline prices is not so pronounced when you zoom into the data. And more importantly, we know what what caused the rapid rise in gasoline prices relative to oil prices.

http://i-r-squared.blogspot.com/2007/04/this-week-in-petroleum-4-25-07.html

If it wasn't for this, I suggest that the price rise of gasoline would have been more in line with the oil price rise and not the curves we see here.

Still hunting for a reason to explain 2004, so when you find one in the production, stocks, or other petroleum related data, do let me know. SAS hasn't found it yet.