Is Oil In a Price Bubble?

Log (base 2) of West Texas Intermediate spot price in nominal US dollars Jan 2000-Jun 20th, 2006, together with linear and quadratic fits to the data from Nov 15th, 2001 onwards (the low before the recent price run-up). On this scale, 4 is $16, 5 is $32, and 6 is $64. Graph is not zero-scaled. Source: EIA.

An alternative explanation for the plateau (besides probably the start of peak oil) runs as follows:

There is a speculative bubble going on in the oil markets. Financial institutions (optionally aided by too much money supply from the Fed) are pumping money into the oil futures market and jacking up prices. This is depressing demand and meaning that suppliers have to leave oil in the ground because there's no customers for it, even though prices are very high.

I've been hearing this argument with increasing frequency - it seems to be particularly beloved by OPEC ministers and oil company executives that don't want to acknowledge peak oil, but also don't want to be blamed for high oil prices. One variant of it is articulated clearly over at A greek speculator's journal. Aspects of it have also been discussed by James Hamilton here in Contango, speculation, and the price of oil, in commenting on strange remarks by Al-Naimi, and then in the last few days in a debate in comments here.

The core issue with this storyline is well put by Professor Hamilton:

I do not share the view that speculation should be thought of as a separate force from supply and demand contributing to the price of oil. An investment fund that today buys a September 2006 futures contract for $75 ($3 above the current spot price of $72) will only make a profit if the spot price of oil in September turns out to be above $75 a barrel. If such speculators prove to be correct and the spot price does rise from its current $72 to, say, $80 a barrel by September, that price hike would be a further factor depressing September demand and potentially increasing September supply. Why would the September spot price be even higher than the current spot price, if users of oil in September will be buying less oil than they are now? According to the speculation theory, we'd have to see even more investment dollars flowing into the market in September than we are currently, causing an even bigger addition to stockpiles (that is, the rate at which oil is added to storage must itself go up at an ever-increasing rate) in order to compensate for the lost demand that $80 oil would choke off as well as to justify an even higher price than at present. And that additional money, in turn, would supposedly be going into February 2007 contracts for $83 oil, in hopes that the February 2007 spot price would be even higher, say $85. All this only makes sense if one believes that investment funds will continue to pour ever-increasing sums into oil futures and an ever-increasing volume of oil gets added to inventory each month. Since the total investment funds and physical facilities for storage are inherently finite, someone in this chain is going to find that they have irrationally thrown their money away. I would argue that this someone is in fact the joker at square 1 who thought you could make money with a September 2006 futures contract betting against the fundamentals.

To me, a much more natural way to try to interpret this phenomenon is that the investment funds are betting not on a bigger fool to bail them out in September, but rather are trying to evaluate the September fundamentals for supply and demand. First, let's look at the upside. There is currently very little spare capacity in global oil production, meaning that a supply disruption of just a few million barrels a day could easily result in a pretty impressive spike up in the spot price of oil in September. Where might such a supply disruption come from? Oh, maybe Nigeria, or Iran, or Iraq, or Saudi Arabia, or Venezuela, or Russia, to name a few. Even if the probability of such an event is low, the large payoff if it occurs could give an attractive expected rate of return-- play such a gamble over a long enough time period, and you could make out quite well, even if everything remains calm over this particular coming six months.

I agree with almost all of this (in general my views on peak oil are quite similar to Professor Hamilton's). However, one area in which I differ is that I do believe in bubbles in general, and in particular I believe that a bubble in oil market prices is a logical possibility, and it is an empirical question to decide whether or not it is happening.

Professor Hamilton is a neoclassical economist, with a strong commitment to the idea that humans always behave rationally. That leads to the efficient markets hypothesis - the idea that markets will immediately incorporate all useful information about future events, and therefore prices will appear to move randomly (because if future market movements were predictable, people would trade on those predictions to make money and thus cause the anticipated movement to happen immediately rather than on the anticipated future schedule). I have noticed that Prof Hamilton, like other neoclassical economists, is quite resistant to calling anything a bubble.

I view the efficient market hypothesis as a frequently useful approximation because it certainly is the case that most financial market participants are very interested in enriching themselves, highly driven and motivated in this pursuit, and capable of at least some degree of rational analysis.

(As an aside, I should stress that I do not think that humanity generally is primarily driven by self-interest, but the more altruistic members of the species become social workers, nurses, and environmental activists, people driven by intellectual curiousity become professors, and so on, while the people extremely anxious to make a financial killing become investment bankers and hedge fund managers and it is the latter subspecies who's nature mainly shows up in financial markets. From this standpoint, the neoclassical economics professor, who spends his (or her) life studying and justifying the rational selfish behavior of financial market participants while himself forgoing most of the opportunity to engage in this kind of accumulation in order to educate the young and write scholarly papers, makes an interesting paradox.)

However, it is also the case that humans are a highly social species. Psychologists and neuroscientists have shown pretty persuasively that our emotions profoundly color our judgements (indeed emotions are critical to the process of forming a judgement - people with brain lesions that interfere with their emotional machinery are unable to perform the simplest everyday tasks because they cannot prioritize). (See, for example, Antonia Damasio's fascinating book Descartes Error). Furthermore, our emotions and judgements are infectious - we influence the people we talk to to share both our moods and our opinions. Thus human judgements (eg about market prices) are the result of a collective social/emotional process which can undergo large scale self-organizing phenomena.

This means that it is possible for booms and busts to occur as a kind of occasional outlying anomaly in the normally more-or-less efficient operation of the market. A wonderfully concise and jaundiced view of the phenomenon is the late J.K. Galbraith's book A Short History of Financial Euphoria. Galbraith's introductory description of a bubble will serve admirably here:

The more obvious features of the speculative episode are manifestly clear to anyone open to understanding. Some artifact or some development, seemingly new and desirable -- tulips in Holland, gold in Louisiana, real estate in Florida, the superb economic designs of Ronald Reagan -- captures the financial mind or perhaps, more accurately, what so passes. The price of the object of speculation goes up. Securities, land, objets d'art, and other property, when bought today, are worth more tomorrow. This increase and the prospect attract new buyers; the new buyers assure a further increase. Yet more are attracted; yet more buy; the increase continues. The speculation building on itself provides its own momentum.

This process once it is recognized, is clearly evident, and especially so after the fact. So also, if more subjectively, are the basic attitudes of the participants. These take two forms. There are those who are persuaded that some new price-enhancing circumstance is in control, and they expect the market to stay up and go up, perhaps indefinitely. It is adjusting to a new situation, a new world of greatly, even infinitely increasing returns and resulting values. Then there are those, superficially more astute and generally fewer in number, who perceive or believe themselves to perceive the speculative mood of the moment. They are in to ride the upward wave; their particular genius, they are convinced, will allow them to get out before the speculation runs its course. They will get the maximum reward from the increase as it continues; they will be out before the eventual fall.

For built into this situation is the eventual and inevitable fall. Built in also is the circumstance that it cannot come gently or gradually. When it comes, it bears the grim face of disaster. That is because both of the groups of participans in the speculative situation are programmed for sudden efforts at escape. Something, it matter little what -- although it will always be much debated -- triggers the ultimate reversal. Those who had been riding the upward wave decide now is the time to get out. Those who thought the increase would be forever find their illusion destroyed abruptly, and they, also, respond to the newly revealed reality by selling or trying to sell. Thus the collapse. And thus the rule, supported by the experience of centuries: the speculative episode always ends not with a whimper but with a bang. Here will be occcasion to see this rule frequently repeated.

So much, as I've said, is clear. Less understood is the mass psychology of the speculative mood. When it is fully comprehended, it allows those so favored to save themselves from disaster. Given the pressure of this crowd psychology, however, the saved will be the exception to a very broad and binding rule. They will be required to resist two compelling forces: one, the powerful personal interest the develops in the euphoric belief, and the other, the pressure of public and seemingly superior financial opinion that is brought to bear on behalf of such belief. Both stand as proof of Schiller's dictum that the crowd converts the individual from reasonably good sense to the stupidity against which, as he also said, "the very Gods Themselves contend in vain."

Although only a few observers have noted the vested interest in error that accompanies speculative euphoria, it is, nonetheless, an extremely plausible phenomenon. Those involved with the speculation are experiencing an increase in wealth--getting rich or being further enriched. No one wishes to believe that this is fortuitous or undeserved; all wish to think that it is the result of their own superior insight or intuition. The very increase in values thus captures the thoughts and minds of those being rewarded. Speculation buys up, in a very practical way, the intelligence of those involved.

Ok. So in my mind it's very clear that this kind of dynamic could get established in the oil markets as a result of peak oil. The question is, has it yet? Are we, at the moment, in Professor Hamilton's efficient oil market world where speculators are rationally profiting from correctly anticipating constrictions in oil supply and the robustness of demand? Or have we made the irrevocable crossing into the delirious territory of irrational exuberance, where money can only be made as long as there are enough greater fools still wishing to rush across the river after us?

As best I can judge, we have not yet crossed into irrational territory. (Though I think this is something we should stay constantly on our guard about - it could easily happen in the future). I will make two arguments. The first is based on Professor Hamilton's observation that excessive irrational speculation in oil futures would have to end up showing up in oil inventories. Are oil inventories excessive?

The EIA keeps publishing graphs like this one:

suggesting that stocks are anomalously high, which would seem, on the face of it, as though there is something strange and bubbly going on. However, if we step back and take a broader (and zero-scaled) view, I think the effect largely goes away. Here's the recent history of OECD oil stocks (which are the only ones for which data are compiled as far as I know).

Breakdown of OECD stocks from Jan 2001-Jan 2006. Source: Table 1.5 of EIA IPM (May 2006).

We can see that there has been some increase in inventories during the recent price run-up (which started at the bottom on Nov 15th 2001), but it doesn't seem too enormous given the excess geopolitical risks that the market is now facing).

In fact, looked at another way, there is really no increase at all. We would expect the amount of stocks oil consumers hold to grow over time because the amount of oil being used is growing over time. Thus to maintain the same number of days supply (to provide a fixed level of security against logistical or geopolitical disruptions), the physical amount of oil in stocks must grow over the years. And if we look at the number of days supply, there has been no significant trend of increasing stocks at all:

Number of days supply represented by OECD stocks (both commercial and governmental/strategic). Source: Table 1.5 of EIA IPM (May 2006) for stocks, Table 1.4 for global production, and Table 1.7 for OECD demand.

I did it two ways. One (the upper, plum, curve) was to divide OECD stocks by OECD oil consumption (on the view that the stocks are essentially inventory for those country's consumption). The other is to divide OECD stocks by global production (on the theory that the OECD -- especially via IEA mechanisms -- is holding stocks with a view to stabilizing the entire global oil market). That gives the lower, green, curve. Either way, the curves have no real trend and current values are not abnormal relative to the entire history of the price run-up. If there was an irrational bubble, we might expect these curves to be trending upwards, probably at an increasing rate.

Another possibility is that speculators are not holding claims against oil in the storage system that the EIA tracks, but instead are holding the oil in their own facilities which are not counted as stocks, thus meaning the stocks are under-reported. There are news reports of investment banks buying warehouses to put oil in. However, while this is clearly happening on some scale, this cannot be any part of the explanation for the production plateau - such oil if it is not counted as stocks must be being counted as sales to final customers, and therefore is adding to demand for physical oil (not depressing it). The hedge fund warehouse is directly in competition with the consumer gas-tank for the (non-increasing) amount of oil the producers are able to ship.

My second argument against the idea that there is an oil market bubble at present derives from the work of Didier Sornette and his collaborators. Sornette comes from a background in physics studying sudden ruptures in materials, but has increasingly applied physical techniques of statistical mechanics to financial markets, in particular to bubbles and crashes (a crash in a market being somewhat analagous to a sudden rupture in a strained physical material).

Long ago, I knew quite a lot of statistical mechanics so I have been able to understand some of Sornette's papers, and book Why Stock Markets Crash: Critical Events in Complex Financial Systems, which I highly recommend. However, in the interests of keeping an already long post from getting too much longer, I am going to leave a fuller treatment to some future occasion.

At the moment I will just observe that one of the signatures Sornette has identified of a bubble in the making is that the rate of growth in the price of the asset is growing faster than exponential. This happens roughly because the positive feedback process inherent in the bubble draws in more and more buyers and causes prices to go up faster and faster. If we plot the log of price against time, a non-bubbly exponential price rise will be a straight line. However, a bubbly situation will lead to a log-price line that is curving up.

Let me illustrate with some examples from a paper Is There a Real-Estate Bubble in the US? which Zhou and Sornette wrote last year which predicted that the US housing bubble would end around now (largely successfully, I would say - they also earlier successfully identified the end of the UK housing bubble). The paper identifies some states with markets that were not bubbly:

House price indexes for non-bubbly US states. This is Figure 3 of Zhou and Sornette, Is There a Real-Estate Bubble in the US?.

As you can see, these states have straight line growth in their log-prices. These states are largely those that Paul Krugman memorably described as Flatland:

In Flatland, which occupies the middle of the country, it's easy to build houses. When the demand for houses rises, Flatland metropolitan areas, which don't really have traditional downtowns, just sprawl some more. As a result, housing prices are basically determined by the cost of construction. In Flatland, a housing bubble can't even get started.
Other states, however, Zhou and Sornette identified as bubbly because the log-price graph curves upwards:

House price indexes for bubbly US states. This is Figure 5 of Zhou and Sornette, Is There a Real-Estate Bubble in the US?.

These states correspond roughly to what Krugman called "The Zoned Zone":

But in the Zoned Zone, which lies along the coasts, a combination of high population density and land-use restrictions -- hence ''zoned'' -- makes it hard to build new houses. So when people become willing to spend more on houses, say because of a fall in mortgage rates, some houses get built, but the prices of existing houses also go up. And if people think that prices will continue to rise, they become willing to spend even more, driving prices still higher, and so on. In other words, the Zoned Zone is prone to housing bubbles.
So it would seem, according to Sornette's methodology.

Anyway, looked at with that lens, how does oil look? Here's a quick and dirty way to assess it:

Log (base 2) of West Texas Intermediate spot price in nominal US dollars Jan 2000-Jun 20th, 2006, together with linear and quadratic fits to the data from Nov 15th, 2001 onwards (the low before the recent price run-up). On this scale, 4 is $16, 5 is $32, and 6 is $64. Graph is not zero-scaled. Source: EIA.

The graph above shows the log spot price of WTI from Jan 2000 to June 20th of this year. (I used log base 2 because I find it a little easier to figure out what the numbers mean than natural logs, and logs base 10 don't have any useful dividers between $10 and $100) I have taken the start of the price rise as November 15th 2001 which is when prices bottomed out after the tech crash and the events of 9/11. To that price rise I fit both a linear trend, and a quadratic. To the extent the price was curving up in a bubblicious manner, we would expect the quadratic to depart markedly from the straight line. It elects not to do so - the two are very close. Thus we see that although there is considerable volatility in the price (and the pattern of that is worth further analysis in the future) the price rise is very much exponential in nature. So I take this as further evidence that we do not have a self-reinforcing bubble.

At least not yet.

Excellent piece. I'm glad someone has devoted such time and effort to this issue.

Two comments. On Professor Hamilton's website Econobrowser, there is a 30 minute video of a speech he gave at the American Enterprise Institute. In it he goes into detail about price I highly recommend it.

Second, Bloomberg reported yesterday that oil inventories in the US were the highest since 1998. This seemed significant to me and seemed to be evidence that in the short run at least Robert Rapier's analysis(and my own, and to a certain extent that of the Saudis) in regard to what is going on is correct.

Take Nigeria and Iran out of the equation(but leave Iraq in) and you have $50 oil tomorrow - a price entirely consistent with an overall higher production cost due to a smaller portion of LSC in the mix and the higher level of demand from developing nations in the last 5 years.

How about addressing the evidence presented in the piece that inventories are not high in relation to consumption?
Sure.

And if we look at the number of days supply, there has been no significant trend of increasing stocks at all:

It seems to be inconclusive. It would have to be conclusively lower and trending that way to be viewed as evidence that there was a problem or that the current supply, demand, and price were proof of "Peak Oil Now."

As these inventories themselves are trending higher, then there is the distinct possibility that with stalled demand, number-of-days-inventories will rise. We will have to see.

First you say it's inconclusive (with which I agree) but then you jump to a conclusion? I could just as easily assert that it needs to be conclusively higher to justify your conclusion so I am not sure how you can reach the conclusion that you just did. Now your second paragraph I can agree with but so far that is just speculation about what may happen, not what is happening right now.

Given my confusion at your conclusion, can you clarify then? Or did I read you correctly?

Yes. I can attempt to clarify.

If you look Stuart's original post here you will see that at the very top he references a TOD thread from about a week ago in which there is an alternate explanation of a plateau. Stuart quotes somebody, I'm not sure who, but also contained in that thread is a hypothetical devil's-advocate question that I posed. There was some lengthy discussion that followed and I believe you read it all since you posted towards the end of it.

There has also been much debate here between Westexas and Robert Rapier regarding related issues.

For me it all boils down to this: Does the current situation with supply, demand, and price point to or verify the existence of "Peak Oil Now?"

If you look at the graphs that Stuart and I have done, you will see that there were two plateaus previous to this one in the last decade. Much of the debate surrounds what is different in this plateau that makes this one the peak, where the other two were not.

My view is simple - I don't know. And I don't think I'll know until I'm looking back.

The opposite point of view(expressed in this debate/discussion) is that we can in fact see the differences and they clearly mean this plateau is the peak.

What may be true, but a position I choose not to defend is that what we see is proof of this current plateaunot being a peak. This may be part of the confusion.

Others are arguing that this is the peak, I am simply arguing that we can't be so sure. I see any inconclusiveness as conclusiveness that we can't be sure :)

One thing I do know, is that if oil ever falls to $55, Saudi  Arabia pumps so much as a single barrel more than they are now, Cantarell's production doesn't decline by more than 5% in the next year, or we hit 86 million barrels per day - then there are going to be a bunch of people here who are going to have to seriously re-think things.

Thanks for the clarification!

I tend to agree with Stuart's position - we can't be sure but there is an interesting body of evidence suggesting that we are at or very near peak. And ultimately, you (and others who have said the same) are right on this issue - we'll really only know for sure in hindsight.

I just learned a new trick over at RealClimate. The IPCC has been trying to make more precise definitions of common words used to describe probability. They have decided "likely" should mean "having an approximately 2/3rds probability". I like that. So my position would be "It is likely that the current plateau is the start of the peaking of world oil supply, and it is likely that the peak month of production will occur within the next three years"
"One thing I do know, is that if oil ever falls to $55, Saudi  Arabia pumps so much as a single barrel more than they are now, Cantarell's production doesn't decline by more than 5% in the next year, or we hit 86 million barrels per day - then there are going to be a bunch of people here who are going to have to seriously re-think things."

The Saudis have admitted to a 5% decline since December, so a mild increase in their reported production, especially given their large stockpiles, would not be totally unexpected; however, Ghawar, the largest producing oil field in the world (found 68 years ago), has produced more than 90% of its 1970's estimated URR.  

Cantarell, the second largest producing oil field in the world,  has a remaining oil column of about 825', which is thinning at the rate of about 300' per year.   The longer they keep production at relatively high levels (with horizontal wells), the sharper the final decline will be.   This is simple physics, which is the same problem that Ghawar has (we have seen what happens when water hits horizontal wells, in the Yibal Field).

Daqing and Burgan are also declining.  

What amazes me is that anyone has doubts about our proximity to Peak Oil given the fact that the four largest oil fields in the world are almost certainly declining.  

Yeah, you're right, but people do have doubts. The best way to assuage those doubts is to have a full and open debate on the topic. Get the information out there and let people make up their own minds. I have no idea who might be reading this website, but the best way to convince people is a bullet-proof argument.

I'll be the first to tell you if you're predictions turn out correct. But for me "almost certainly" doesn't cut it. It has to be "are declining" with numbers to prove it.

Robert has used the line recently,"What is it going to take to convince you..." Well, I will tell you what it will take to convince me. Year-to-year drops in global conventional crude production of greater than 2% for twelve consecutive months(or something roughly equivalent).

If Cantarrell has a catasrophic collapse, you take the cake.

What I like about your comment is defining what you mean when you talk about peaking. I think we have some apples and oranges confusing the dialog.

For myself, I don't see THE PEAK as a month, a day or even a year. I see it as more of a process as described by getting on a plateau which shows monthly and yearly fluctuations within certain limits until permanent decline sets in. This plateau could last 3 to 5 years - I don't know. If the current plateau is the "peak plateau" then we rounded the shoulder around the end of 2004. If we get bumps up to perhaps 86 mbpd but not consistently exceeding that before decline sets in, I will consider us to have been "within" the peak at this time. To consider us not at the peak, I would want to see sustained production for a year or more exceeding 86 mbpd.

If we are in the peak at present, it could go on another 2-3 years before the consistent drop you are referring to, so likely both of our criteria will remain unanswered for at least 3 more years even if we are peaking now - which is fine.  

I think we can't make too much of short-term fluctuations in either direction, but society needs to be preparing now either way.

Westexas: I admire your patience in stating the same simple,extremely important facts repeatedly without frustration.
Ghawar, the largest producing oil field in the world (found 68 years ago), has produced more than 90% of its 1970's estimated URR.

I would suggest that this indicates that the 1970s estimates were too low.  What is the typical production of a field relative to its peak production when 90% exhausted and what is the production of Ghawar now relative to its peak production numbers from the 1980s?

While we cannot rule out the possibility of a sudden, severe collapse, I believe it cannot be taken as a given either.

Matt Simmons' book is worth buying, just for the chapter on Ghawar.  He talked to a retired Aramco executive, who said, in his opinion, that there was no way the URR for Ghawar could be more than 70 Gb.  To give you an idea of how big 10 Gb (the difference between 60 & 70 Gb) is, it is almost the same as the entire recoverable reserves in the Prudhoe Bay Field, the largest oil field in North America.

The vertical wells in Ghawar started watering out long ago, so the Saudis responded by drilling high tech horizontal wells into a thinning oil column.  This has the effect of prolonging the period of high production, but it probably does not increase ultimate production.  

When the water does hit the horizontal wells, the resulting production collapse can be dramatic, e.g., the Yibal Field.

I can't think of any other producing region that has been quite so dependent on one field complex.  It is not "if," but "when" the oil production in this 68 year old oil field, accounting for about half of Saudi production, starts rapidly declining.  It may be happening right now.

Commercial inventories would be lower today if they repaid the 14mm barrels borrowed from the spr. So, days of coverage (with spr included) is lower this year than last while price is higher.
(1)  Inventory numbers don't track crude on the basis of quality, i.e. light/sweet versus heavy/sour.  IMO, growing inventories of heavy/sour have been obscuring flat to declining inventories of light/sweet.  An interesting chart would be take total petroleum inventories, subtract our crude oil inventories, leaving product inventories and then divide that by daily product usage. (Another in my continuing series of suggestions that someone else to the heavy lifting.)

(2)  Speaking of someone else doing the heavy lifting.  Bradshaw, acting on a suggestion I made, posted a graph showing Saudi oil production and oil prices.  The most recent oil price increase of 15% to 25%, since December, coincided with the recent reported decline in Saudi oil production.  

We have seen panic selling in the Saudi stock market and panic drilling in Saudi Arabia as they reported a "voluntary" 5% decrease in production.  Saudi Arabia is incredibly vulnerable to a decline in Ghawar's production, which has already produced about 90% of Aramco's 1970's era estimated reserves.  

Mathematically, Saudi Arabia, based on the HL method, is at the same point at which Texas started its so far terminal decline in production.  

So, perhaps the simplest explanation is the best?

As a totally casual observer (I know none of the details), it struck me that a Saudi stock market bubble could have been the logical consequence of high oil prices (and profits).  All that money, where to put it ...
I have a post in the works about the Saudi stock market.
 Saudi oil production, world oil production, world net oil export capacity and the world economy are extremely dependent on sustained high production from the Ghawar Field, which has now produced more than 90% of its 1970's era estimated URR.

The Saudis are claiming an ability to boost their total production by 25% or more.  Oil prices are at around $70 for years out, which would suggest very strong cash flows in the years ahead.

The HL method says that Saudi Arabia is at the same point at which the prior swing producer, Texas, started declining, and the Saudis have admitted to a 5% production decline since December.

So, what have Saudi insiders been doing regarding their own stock market?  They have been selling.  As they say, "Actions speak louder than words."  

BTW, even with declining production, cash flows would probably be up in the future because of higher oil prices, but that subtle point may have escaped the Saudi insiders who might be in a panic over the prospect of a terminal decline in production.  It all depends on what the actual decline rate is, if--as I suspect--they really are declining.  It's possible that the Ghawar decline is truly scary--just like Yibal.

The other problem is the Export Land model.  With rapidly increasing domestic consumption and falling production, it may be a challenge to keep the cash flow up, even with higher prices, as net exports fall sharply.  A restless large population of resentful young people, combined with declining oil production does not suggest a stable future ahead for Saudi Arabia, which would be a strong reason for selling Saudi stocks.

The real panic might be saudis thinking their production is declining, news of which might provoke revolution. In this case, it would be best to sell all saudi stocks, convert to US$, and move the money to swiss banks. Note that Kuwait parliament is trying tolimit exports with their new concern that their resource is running out.

It is not in the interest of either opec members or oil ceo's for news of limits to get out... the former could easily loes their grip, and maybe their heads, while the latter could face windfall profits taxes, lower earnings and options.

I am looking forward to that one too. Thanks a lot for your work. And I would also like to congratulate all the other posters for the editorial staff but also westtexas, kebab, jack, oil ceo and all the others for their recent discussions which are really very informative and shed a multicolored light on a complex reality.
The current oil price discovery mechanism is broken. Given relatively small spare production capacity for the types of oil used in futures markets (WTI light sweet crude or UK Brent, where e.g. Brent represents 0.4% of world's total oil production but is used as benchmark to price 60% of world's oil) results in lack of meaningful arbitrage ability between physical and derivatives.

Dimitris Hatzopoulos' blog is excellent.

Yes, it looks like a good blog. I'll bookmark it.

But isn't he overstating the role of WTI as a price setter? Is the benchmark WTI rare really used to price other oils? and 60%?

Given that the spreads between WTI and heavier (and average) crudes has grown, perhaps reliance on WTI as the benchmark overstates oil price increases. It is true that when we say oil is selling for $70 a barrel we may really mean "the most expensive 1% of all oil sold is selling for $70 a barrel".

Has anyone tracked median oil prices over the last thrity years or so? It would be interesting to see.

These are good questions. The way I saw it was that the futures market uses WTI and Brent as a benchmark. These two physical products are getting much more scarce in relationship to the other heavy/sour stuff out there which is sold on more of a party-to-party contract basis. How are those other oils priced? The author's belief(I think) is in not so efficient a market as Nymex/ICE to start with, and then also, Nymex/ICE is becoming less efficient. At least that is how I took his statement of "less meaningful arbitrage between physical and derivative."

I'm guessing the other oils are priced at some type of a premium/discount to the benchmarks using their API/sulfur-content ratings. So we have a market, just not as an efficient one as we might like.

It would be great if more of his site were in English. Perhaps this is selfish. It's all Greek to me.

So right now it's enough for "investors" to control/hoard only the few barrels of types (WTI and Brent) which are "eligible" for physical delivery in the futures markets, to control the whole pricing system for oil.

That's probably why oil price is going up while producers claim they can't find buyers for their real "wet barrels" of oil.

I find his argument and logic coming to this point to be quite convincing. He quotes the Saudis at length, in context, and juxtaposed with the real-world history of price in such a way that is not often seen on this site.

He seems to have a unique idea of what the word "hoard" means, for sure.
It seems he is ignoring the physical attributes of all that other oil - heavy, sour, and much harder and expensive to refine. That would seem, to me, to be as much a factor in why the Saudis cannot get buyers as any hoarding.
The problem with his argument is that the prices of all the other "physical" grades are all high too (by historical standards). For example here's the EIA's weekly spot price number for all non-OPEC grades they track from Jan 2000-present:

As you can see, right now everything is over $50 and almost everything is over $60. The lowest grade is Canadian Lloyd generally (a heavy 22 degree grade), and Robert Rapier and I debated this a while back - it turns out there are some constraints on getting Canadian oil to market which have depressed it's price.

So explain to me again how all this stuff is so expensive if nobody wants it? Why wouldn't the sellers of it lower their prices to sell more of it?

Thanks, great graph.  
Oh no, I'm not going to try to explain it. But it would be great if Dimitris would pop by and give it a shot. How did you find his blog, by the way?
He posts comments on Econbrowser - DHatz.
This guy must be the one who posted here as Hellasious. He seemed like the Keithster of shorting crude.
The world is burning about 31 Gb per year. At $70 nearly $2.2 trillion is spent on oil. The oil disappears, but the dollars keep floating around. Our government budget deficit of around $400 billion is equal to 5.7 Gb of oil. The total credit market debt for the US is $41.698 Trillion (596 Gb) and increased $3.700 Trillion (52.8 Gb) during the last year. There is a bubble alright, but it's not in oil. I would guess that the banks of the world can lend enough money to insure every barrel produced is burned. The holders of all these promises might soon realize that there is not enough resources to back them. If faith in our faith-based currencies vaporizes there really is no limit to how high oil can go.